How Does Aristotle Define Happiness

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There is an underlying theme of happiness in all that is humanity. We have defined it as feeling pleasure and enjoyment because of one's life or situation. With that being the definition of the actual word, everyone deems the emotion quite differently. For some pleasure and enjoyment can come in the form of giving, while for others it's receiving. Aristotle sees happiness to be in "accordance with virtue" and the key component being to have a good moral character. He defines happiness as "an activity of the soul in accordance to virtue. He believed those who lived with "complete virtue" or good moral character, was happy. Aristotle compiled a list, that would be similar to about any normal functioning human, of what makes us happy: friends, good health, knowledge, and wealth. However, the basis of which we think what happiness is different from Aristotle. Where we perceive it as a state of being, or being able to experience it off and on, he saw it as a final end.…show more content…
From birth to death there's a natural inclination to feel pleasure. He divides the human soul into part that is reason, passions, and vegetative functions. Consequently, some virtues will be driven by reason, some by passion and some are just instinctive to us. "Virtues are habits of the soul by which one acts well", which is acquired by "practice and habituation". While virtues are basically normal behavior that is suitable to most of society, on the opposite side are those who become vicious or "defective ways of acting to become habitual". Corruptive behavior is all based on inclinations. It's a primal sense rather than our developed sense, a instinctive habit, rather than one formed from conditioning. We are more inclined to be vicious since all we need to do is follow our instinctive nature rather than our condition one. Therefore, we all have an born desire to be happy, but fall short for following a vicious behavior rather than our
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