‘Macbeth’ as a History
Shakespeare wrote 'Macbeth' nearly 400 years ago but how was his play historically correct? Shakespeare used the ‘Holinshed chronicle’ (1587) as the primary source to write his tragic play. However, he altered a lot in it. He appeared to deliberately combined fact and fiction in his work and changed the historical facts. I mean whereas, in reality, Macbeth ruled Scotland for 17 years from 1040 till 1057. The real Duncan was a weak and ineffective ruler. Moreover, Macbeth had a respectable claim to the throne since he descended from Kenneth MacAlpin. Banquo appeared In Holinshed's 'Chronicles' as an accomplice in Macbeth's murder of Duncan. On the other side, Shakespeare altered many details in his play. First, Shakespeare’s…show more content… Ross Is’t night’s predominance, or the day’s shame…..
Old man 'Tis unnatural...A falcon, tow'ring in her pride of place,
Was by a mousing owl hawked at and killed. (Act 2.scene 4.1-10)
Ross And Duncan's horses--a thing most strange And certain--
Beautious and swift, the minions of their race,
Turn'd wild in nature, broke their stalls, flung out,
...as they would make war with mankind
Old Man 'Tis said they eat each other. (Act 2.4.13-10)
Introducing Duncan's murder in this way diminished Macbeth's place in the grander scheme of the play. Macbeth and his Lady relegated themselves to small player status or instruments whose crime against all humanity surpassed their collective motive of ambition; they committed a wicked deed of apocalyptic consequence. That unleashed the evil, and it destroyed God's beloved.
AS a conclusion, Shakespeare wrote his play and altered in its historical facts, to enhance the notion that murdering a rightful king was a horrible act. Therefore, Macbeth deserved this tragic end because he represented the illegitimate ambition in the play. Unlike, Duncan, Malcolm and Macduff who incarnated the legitimate voice in the